Here's the context:

1 Cor 5:1 It is actually reported that there is immorality [i.e., sexual immorality] among you, and immorality of such a kind as does not exist even among the Gentiles, that someone has his father’s wife [i.e., the son is having sex with his father's wife]. 2 And you have become arrogant, and have not mourned instead, in order that the one who had done this deed might be removed from your midst. 3 For I, on my part, though absent in body but present in spirit, have already judged him who has so committed this, as though I were present. 4 In the name of our Lord Jesus, when you are assembled, and I with you in spirit, with the power of our Lord Jesus, 5 I have decided to deliver such a one to Satan for the destruction of his flesh, that his spirit may be saved in the day of the Lord Jesus.

Here's how I understand verse 5:

I [Paul] have decided to deliver such a one over to Satan so that he might reap the results of practicing this sexual sin that his life might be saved in the day of the Lord Jesus.

So how do I view "deliver such a one over to Satan"?

Go to Romans 1:24. "Therefore God gave them over in the sinful desires of their hearts to sexual impurity for the degrading of their bodies with one another."

In other words to back off - to let go. Hand him over to the desires of his nature and hopefully he will suffer the results and seek God's face in repentance.

That's my understanding. What are your thoughts?

Robert